Donald Trump has Offended the Irish !
Trump had the Gaul, to say Paddy Wagon!
Can you imagine the nerve of this racist bastard.

https://townhall.com/tipsheet/mattvespa ... s-n2363127
"Having the Gaul" is offensive to French-Americans, you fuck.C-Mag wrote:It's over Folks, Trump is done. He finally gone and done it.
Donald Trump has Offended the Irish !
Trump had the Gaul, to say Paddy Wagon!
Can you imagine the nerve of this racist bastard.![]()
https://townhall.com/tipsheet/mattvespa ... s-n2363127
BUUUUUUUUUUUT, their both Celtic .GrumpyCatFace wrote:"Having the Gaul" is offensive to French-Americans, you fuck.C-Mag wrote:It's over Folks, Trump is done. He finally gone and done it.
Donald Trump has Offended the Irish !
Trump had the Gaul, to say Paddy Wagon!
Can you imagine the nerve of this racist bastard.![]()
https://townhall.com/tipsheet/mattvespa ... s-n2363127
No, you fascist piece of shit. The Celts are distinct from the Gauls - very much so. Both groups may be somewhat Gallic, but Celts definitely did not spread that far south.C-Mag wrote:BUUUUUUUUUUUT, their both Celtic .GrumpyCatFace wrote:"Having the Gaul" is offensive to French-Americans, you fuck.C-Mag wrote:It's over Folks, Trump is done. He finally gone and done it.
Donald Trump has Offended the Irish !
Trump had the Gaul, to say Paddy Wagon!
Can you imagine the nerve of this racist bastard.![]()
https://townhall.com/tipsheet/mattvespa ... s-n2363127
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/ ... c_britain/So my final summary of the question is that I think that the people who lived in Pre-Celtic Britain were mostly the same people who then lived in Celtic Britain. This is partially supported with genetic evidence indicating that there is a very strong neolithic-era marker among the British population. I also think that calling any culture or region 'Celtic' is totally meaningless; there has never been any serious argument that the Gauls, Belgae, Celtiberians, Picts, Britons, and the Kingdom of Noricum (let alone many other tribes/states) ever considered themselves a single people. And if they did not do so, then referring to them by a homogenous term is pointless. It implies that sharing your style of art, tool-making and language automatically makes you nearly identical. At best, we should be talking about Celtic-speaking peoples; that at least does not imply uniformity, whilst also correctly asserting that they spoke related languages to one another. We should not insert a notion of shared cultural identity where it did not exist.
EDIT: As a final notice, those in this thread who have treated La Tene material culture as being synonymous with 'Celtic' (or the same indeed with Halstatt), and those who have treated language groups as being synonymous with culture are doing the past a disservice. With regards to people who think that Indo-European is a type of culture/genetic identity rather than a language group, and those who think that La Tene culture was literally spread by 'Celtic' people migrating everywhere, I call into question your understanding of modern archaeology and linguistics.
One day you're children will beg you not to help them with their homework.GrumpyCatFace wrote:No, you fascist piece of shit. The Celts are distinct from the Gauls - very much so. Both groups may be somewhat Gallic, but Celts definitely did not spread that far south.